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September 05, 2006

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The NJ Annuitant

Very good commentary. I have a special intererst in the second line of attack: the direct taxation issue. The DC Circuit did not even mention it on the way to holding the tax in question invalid. The Federal tax on foreign insurance policies has nothing to do with measuring income, nor should it. Would a Federal excise on tort recoveries be a direct tax? Under the reasoning of HYLTON v. UNITED STATES the answer would clearly be , "no." The DC Circuit has done the legal fraternity a great service by reminding all of us of the direct taxation issue.

Now, I fully believe that recoveries for emotional distress are income within the meaning of Amendment 16, and that the Supreme Court will so rule ( unless the DC Circuit does so , en banc.)

andy

I am not a proponent of originalism, and cannot offer any learned explanation of it, but i do think it's worth clarifying that an originalist argument doesn't necessarily mean that whatever items of gain the public deemed "income" in 1913 are the only items that may be reached by taxation.

for example, consider the prohibition on cruel and unusual punishment. i think all would agree today that injecting someone with the bird flu and then watching him die would constitute "cruel and unusual." however, in 17XX (i'm bad with history), when the 8th amendment was ratified, no one even knew what the bird flu was, so the framers could not possibly have intended to prevent the state from killing someone by injecting him with bird flu.

an originalist (or at least a Scalian originalist) would not thus say that the 8th amendment doesn't protect an individual from death by bird flu. Rather, the *original* meaning of the constitution was to prevent cruel and unusual things generally, and that fixed definition may refer to things that change over time. what must be unyielding and unchanging is that the prohibited punishments be "cruel and unusual"-- it cannot be the case, to the originalist, that that definition changes to include "friendly and ordinary" punishments.

Scalia recently emphasized this principle in his dissent in Georgia v. Randolph: “There is nothing new or surprising in the proposition that our unchanging Constitution refers to other bodies of law that might themselves change. The Fifth Amendment provides, for instance, that "private property" shall not "be taken for public use, without just compensation"; but it does not purport to define property rights.” 126 S.Ct. 1515.

Similarly, I do not think that the 16th amendment purports to define “income”—the body of law defining income has undoubtedly changed, but that does NOT mean, under an originalist view, that only those items constituting “income” in 1913 are subject to taxation. Rather, the 16th amendment authorizes taxation of income generally. Under an originalist view, the 16th amendment cannot broadly authorize taxes on both items of income and non-income—that much is correct (although as others have noted, congress’s general power to tax may reach to items of “non-income.”).

Whether originalism is a good theory or not, I don’t know. But I think before we instinctively bash its merits (due to its affiliation with Justice Scalia, who some would think eats little children with his morning coffee), it’s worth analyzing just exactly what it is we’re bashing.

WD Kebschull

Professor Beale:

How about applying the tax law theories that you espoused in analyzing MURPHY to IRS instructions that provided for the exclusion from Alternative Minimum Taxable Income of refunds of tax overpayments that provided a tax benefit in a prior year when the regular tax was paid?

What section of the IRC provides for the exclusion of tax refunds from Alternative Minimum Taxable Income when the refunds are the result of overpayments when deducted under paragraph (1), (2), or (3) of secttion 164(a)in a year that the regular tax was paid? It sure is not section 56(b)(1)(D)!

And, how would you argue for the correctness of IRS instructions that requires a refund of a tax overpayment made in a year that the AMT was paid be FULLY INCLUDED in gross income for regular tax purposes. A state income tax overpayment, for example, can produce a limited long term capital gains rate based tax benefit in a year the regular tax is paid by reducing the portion of capital gains taxed at 15 percent and increasing the portion taxed at 5 percent by an equal amount. It seems to me that under section 111(a) the refund should only be included in the calculation of capital gains.

And, oh yes, how is it that section 111(a) of the IRC permits IRS to issue instructions that result in the gross income attributable to an itemized deduction recovery exceeding the amount of the recovery as happens when the refund recipient's taxable Social Security benefits are increased by the itemized deduction recovery? The tax overpayment did nothing to reduce taxable Social Security benefits!

Now to MURPHY:

I believe that this where the govenment went wrong.

The government argued that historical exclusion of types of economic income based on a human capital theory does not demonstrate that exclusion is required under the Sixteenth Amendment. The income tax looks to economic income: gains are taxed to the extent that they exceed basis, which is the financial capital invested. There is no parallel economic amount invested for tax purposes in one's body: a person does not have a basis in their well-being. REALLY?

WD Kebschull

Jake

An excellent comment on Murphy, Prof. Beale, hard to improve on.

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